Sin of Unbelief

One Seventh Day Adventist site says:

The sacrifice of Christ gave much more than mere physical life. It lifted form humanity the condemnation of the second death, and gave every spiritual blessing and happiness that humanity has ever known. This deliverance from the fear of eternal death is the "justification unto life" that Christ has given to "all men," not merely offered to them. Having died every man's second death, Christ has secured for him the gift of salvation. This means that "all men" are born and live under a legal "verdict of acquittal" "in Christ." and are drawn by the Holy Spirit unless and until they choose finally to disbelieve and thus be lost. (But God does not force anyone; the sinner can spurn what Christ has already given him.)

I was reflecting upon the dispute that 1 John 2:2 is often used to argue that Jesus’ death actually takes away the sins of every single person ever and satisfies the wrath of God on all of mankind’s behalf. Consistency is the sign of a failed argument, and those who hold this view teach radically contradictory doctrines. Since most arguments use this verse without any exegesis, I will argue here based upon the unity of the New Testament’s distinctive doctrines.

There are several reasons for rejecting Universal Atonement by which men only go to hell for unbelief. It separates the different aspects of the work of Christ. In theology, Christians often distinguish between different doctrines that may only be distinguished in order that we may better understand the Faith. They are not to be separated artificially.

1) For instance, Justification is to be distinguished from Sanctification. Yet all believers must come under both truths. There is no Christian that possesses one without the other.

2) The doctrine of the non-Imputation of Sin is distinguished from the positive imputation of Righteousness. There are reasons for doing so theologically, but every believer must possess both. It is unbiblical to say an Unbeliever has been forgiven his sin debt while not receiving the imputation of righteousness. Romans chapter 4 speaks of both aspects belonging to the believer. Never once does Scripture teach otherwise.

3) The Passive and Active obedience of Christ become separated. 1 John 2:2 is used to show that Jesus actually takes away the sins of everyone including unbelievers. The only reason men go to hell (we are told) is unbelief. So Jesus’ work on the cross becomes a work that is totally divorced from His righteous life.

Why is Jesus’ righteous life not the possession of unbelievers, while His death is? If we take the idea of universal Substitutionary Atonement, why can we not say Jesus lived His life for every single person ever? The simple reason is that Scripture militates against such an idea. Romans 5:12 and following could not be any clearer on the Federal Headship of Adam and Christ with respect to those who are in union with them. The inconsistency here is glaring. If Jesus’ death actually took away the sins of every person ever, then why does His life not make every one righteous?

4) The doctrine of Penal Substitutionary Atonement becomes divorced from the High Priestly Office of Christ and His intercession on behalf of His Elect. Penal Substitutionary Atonement has an historic definition. This historic understanding declared by the Reformers was closely linked with Christ’s intercession. In Several places in Scripture we are told that Jesus prays for His people and offers Himself in their behalf. This is no hypothetical prayer. Jesus goes to the Father on the basis of His work. In other words, at the Cross-, Jesus actually secures His people by His death. He actually dies in their place and offers that sacrifice to the Father. Today, all believers may say “Jesus died for me” knowing that He bore their sins on the cross.

If we apply these works of Christ to unbelievers, is Jesus’ death not sufficient to satisfy the Father in their behalf? Does Jesus fail to avert the wrath of God? Does the Father pour His wrath against Jesus and the unbeliever?

5) Assuming Universal Atonement heavily relies upon an unproved idea that man has a free will. Often I am told that God must in Christ offer salvation to all men. I am ready to agree, but not because God must do so. I agree that all men are commanded to repent and believe simply because God sent His Son to do a work. Therefore it must be believed just because it is revealed God did something.

However, simply because Christ died on the Cross and it is historical and commanded by God to be believed does not mean Jesus efficaciously applies that work to every individual ever, but only His Elect. Immediately someone will say that is not fair. Jesus must efficaciously offer His work to everyone.

a) From the Calvinistic perspective, that is tantamount to saying that everyone must be saved before they may be rightly judged having rejected the free offer of the Gospel.

b) Grace must be radically redefined to mean something God must do. But if God must do something, how is this grace? For a gift to be free, it must be freely given. If God chooses not to efficaciously do something, why is He accountable for our sinful rejection of His offer? To blame God for not graciously and efficaciously freeing us from our sin is to blame God for our sin.

c) This is also a denial of Original Sin. Man is a sinner by nature. If God freely chooses to free a man from his sin, is God not able to do this perfectly in Christ. The error of semi-Pelagianism has returned. On a fundamental level, this view is no different from Rome’s. Man must cooperate with God’s grace to achieve salvation.

d) One web site states, “God does not deal with you on the basis of your goodness or your badness. He deals with you on the basis of the finished work of Jesus Christ on the cross.” I must ask, “What about the man who has never heard of Christ?” Clearly men are still unbelievers for they reject God through the revelation God has given to all men through creation and their conscience. Far too many passages demonstrate that men are judged for their sin and their sins.

e) Is Unbelief a sin? Did Jesus die for it? If it is not a sin, then why do men go to hell for it?

Again, much more could be said. In conclusion we must as Christians distinguish between doctrines, but not divorce them from one another. Christ’s person and His work are at stake. Will we see salvation as being man-centered or will we see the majesty of God in the face of Christ and his work.

Lord willing, in my next post I will demonstrate that 1 John 2:2 does not teach Universal Atonement not only in its immediate scope but also in the broader scope of John’s writings and the New Testament itself.