1Jo 2:15 Do not love the world nor the things in the world. If anyone loves the world, the love of the Father is not in him.
1Jo 2:16 For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh and the lust of the eyes and the boastful pride of life, is not from the Father, but is from the world.
In just a space of 13 verses, John tells us that Christians are not to love the world. Is the natural reading the same as in verse 2? Obviously not! Those who argue for the natural reading in verse 2, however, are begging the question. Although they see the natural reading of verse 2 as meaning every single person ever, reformed folks simply do not see it that way. This is mainly due to the immediate context and the term propitiation, which we will look at later. For now, I just wanted the average reader to note that John has a remarkable ability to use words in different ways, even in the same verse! (see John 5:20-25; 11)
In John 17:9, Jesus prays the High Priestly prayer in behalf of His people and not for the world. I am told that here is an example of world meaning every single person. Yet the logic should be obvious. If world is every person ever, then Jesus is not praying for every person ever. The irony is that this militates against the God loving the world and not doing what it takes to save it.
John 3:16 is really the debatable place. John McArthur has commented in the past that world here means every person. The context at some points seems to allow for such an idea. Notice verses 14 & 15. Here is a reference to Moses’ provision for all who had been bitten by the serpents in the desert. Anyone who looked to the Bronze Serpent would become healed. In the same way, when Jesus is lifted up before all men, anyone who looks to the Son shall be saved. Therefore, verse 16 could be allowed to mean every person in the sense that Jesus has made a sufficient sacrifice for the world.
It is here that a counter point needs to be made. For everyone agrees that there is a delimiter in verse 16 and the reference in verse 14 to Moses. Both groups require that the people must look to the Son or believe. The question then become “Why do some believe?” Christ in the beginning of His discourse gives the answer to Nicodemus.
Joh 3:3 Jesus answered and said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God."
Here is an act of the Holy Spirit. No matter how the religions of men attempt to make faith something that is worked up within a man, here Jesus could not be clearer. The Spirit of God gives birth. This logically leads to those who look to the Son for provision. This logically ties with the decree of the Father’s love for the Elect (see Romans 8: 32-33). John 3:16 must be read in this sense of the Trinity saving a people perfectly. Therefore, John Owen was right in arguing that the sense of the term world in 3:16 is the elect. God has loved a particular people not just in a neighborly way, but also in the redemptive sense.
In conclusion John uses the term world in various ways. 1 John 2:2 is that Jesus is a perfect Advocate by the offering of Himself in behalf of all those who believe in Him. As Revelation 5:9 says:
And they *sang a new song, saying, "Worthy are You to take the book and to break its seals; for You were slain, and purchased for God with Your blood men from every tribe and tongue and people and nation.
Verse 10 gives a clue as to the nature of this people.
"You have made them to be a kingdom and priests to our God; and they will reign upon the earth."
This is not a hypothetical world. It is a new world in Christ.
2 comments:
I think that John 10:16 helps with understanding what “world” means in chapter 3 too.
Paul,
I agree. That text is so clear, I am amazed everyone is not a Calvinist. But I have found most people are either totally ignorant of the text or just don't see its significance.
Tradition usually causes the eyes to not see the meaning of the words.
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